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@Ron, just curious, why the (42 . 4)?
The complement bulge is the inverse number (1 / bulge)
Quote from: gile on December 03, 2017, 08:08:03 AMThe complement bulge is the inverse number (1 / bulge)Thanks gile, I hadn't considered that tan((2pi-x)/4) = cot(x/4), that's a nice property.